The Chinese Agriculture Tread

Joined Mar 2011
5,772 Posts | 497+
Library of Alexandria
I am making this tread to talk about Chinese agriculture, from the Bronze Age to modern times.

Link to a previous excellent tread by Hackneyedscribe on Han Agriculture http://www.historum.com/asian-history/37903-han-dynasty-agriculture.html#post926977

Some interesting statistics that I have found on Late Medieval to Modern Chinese agricultural output:

Total cultivated area ------ used for grain ---- output of grain

1400 AD -- 246,000 sqk --- 197,000 sqk ------ 21 million tons

1600 AD -- 333,000 sqk --- 267,000 sgk ------ 46 million tons

1770 AD -- 633,000 sqk --- 507,000 sqk ------ 77 million tons

1873 AD -- 806,000 sqk --- 661,000 sqk ------ 100 million tons

2005 AD -- 1,300,000 sqk -- 1,043,000 sqk --- 370 million tons

Notice that as Chinese population grew from 72 million in 1400 AD to 350 million in 1873, the ammount of land under cultivation increased almost in proportion and productivity per hectare didn't increase that much, from 1.06 tons per hectare to 1.51 tons per hectare.

Note that China in the early 15th century had a very small amount of land under cultivation in proportion to their territory. Though the proportion didn't increase much considering that Chinese territory today is 3 times larger than it was in 1400 AD.

Also, the per capita levels of grain production are apparently constant in the last 600 years 285 kg from 1400 AD to 1873 Ad and increasing to 370 kg today.

Source: From Divergence to Convergence: Reevaluating the History Behind China's Economic Boom, 2012, LSE, working paper, Ma et al
 
Joined Feb 2011
10,194 Posts | 3,839+
Also, the per capita levels of grain production are apparently constant in the last 600 years 285 kg from 1400 AD to 1873 Ad and increasing to 370 kg today.

Should that really come as a surprise? Think about it. Hint: How much food do Bill Gates eat?
 
Joined Mar 2011
5,772 Posts | 497+
Library of Alexandria
Bill Gates eats less grain than the average person. He probably eats more fruits and fish and, maybe, more meat.
 
Joined Feb 2011
10,194 Posts | 3,839+
Last edited:
Oh heck, I'll just say it. I can't resist anymore :) The source you found got that information from Perkins. The source says: "Perkins assumes per capita grain output of 570 catties (=285 kg) [from 1400 to 1933] and also that 80% of cultivated land is devoted to grain."

Per capita grain output should be more or less stable. Perkins assumes a per capita grain output of 285 kg, because rich or poor people eat just about the same amount of grain across the board, unless if they are going hungry. Whatever amount the wealthier eat in non-grain products, it shouldn't make that much of a difference as for the most part their primary consumption is still grain, albeit of better quality (especially in Chinese culture). Once per capita grain production increases over a set amount, then they are probably exporting it. "Per capita" is the amount per person. So when we are talking about grain production, then per capita production should be relatively stable as even a rich man could only eat so much.
 
Joined Sep 2009
1,283 Posts | 65+
I am making this tread to talk about Chinese agriculture, from the Bronze Age to modern times.

Link to a previous excellent tread by Hackneyedscribe on Han Agriculture http://www.historum.com/asian-history/37903-han-dynasty-agriculture.html#post926977

Some interesting statistics that I have found on Late Medieval to Modern Chinese agricultural output:

Total cultivated area ------ used for grain ---- output of grain

1400 AD -- 246,000 sqk --- 197,000 sqk ------ 21 million tons

1600 AD -- 333,000 sqk --- 267,000 sgk ------ 46 million tons

1770 AD -- 633,000 sqk --- 507,000 sqk ------ 77 million tons

1873 AD -- 806,000 sqk --- 661,000 sqk ------ 100 million tons

2005 AD -- 1,300,000 sqk -- 1,043,000 sqk --- 370 million tons

Notice that as Chinese population grew from 72 million in 1400 AD to 350 million in 1873, the ammount of land under cultivation increased almost in proportion and productivity per hectare didn't increase that much, from 1.06 tons per hectare to 1.51 tons per hectare.

The context of this is because after 1400, the biggest increase in Chinese farmland and production came due to the introdution of new world crops, which made a lot of the previously unviable or at least unattractive areas relatively more viable for farming, but that still doesn't change the fact that those places aren't exactly the greatest area for farming ever (usually mountainous regions .) so their average productivity would be on the low end.

China pretty much ran out of new highly viable farmlands after the 12 C or so, what could be realistically developed already were by then. though some amount of technological advancements for farmings were made in the later era, the average productivity probably was dragged back down by the fact that most of the newly developed lands were relaively poor mountain farms with below average productivity per capita.
 
Joined Mar 2011
5,772 Posts | 497+
Library of Alexandria
Ran out while the amount of land under cultivation increased 5 times?

I believe that China has way more than 0.25 million square kilometers of arable land. Brazil has 5 million square kilometers.
 
Joined Sep 2009
1,283 Posts | 65+
Ran out while the amount of land under cultivation increased 5 times?

I believe that China has way more than 0.25 million square kilometers of arable land. Brazil has 5 million square kilometers.

If your comparing to 2005, then keep in mind that...

A. the Current PRC is much bigger than the Ming dynasty, for one thing, most of Manchuria are open plains that is useful for farmiing today, but was obviously not avalible to the Ming in 1400. other places, like Tibet and Xin-Jiang, while obviously not nearly as useful farming wise, still have some farmland avalible as well. if you take out Manchuria and simple look at the Chinese core region (the middle/lower Yellow River / Yangsti region) it isn't actually bigger than Brazil.

B. you may be seriously underestimating how much the effect of new world crop can mean for reasonablly usable areas of cultivation, may I point out the fact that Ireland's population grew by something like 8 times between the introduction of Potatos to the great Potato famine ... and that's within 200 years.

800px-IrelandEuropePopulation1750.PNG


Also, 1400 is the very begining of the Ming dynasty, the Chinese population fell pretty badly during the later half of the Yuan and the subsequent wars that resulted in the Ming, 1400 is barely one generation into the Ming so the process of reclaiming a lot of desolated land was probably still in progress at that time.

an example this is the census figure produced by the Imperial dynasties (though it is problematic since the Yuan counted in households but the Ming switched to a full head count)

There is one full head count figure in the Yuan offical history book, which is 13,867,219household,59,519,727 people, this is probably a considerable underestimatio nof population since the Mongols usually don't count slaves and may not have counted children either. given that the average household figure of the Jin and Ming we'd probably come to the conclusion tha that the Yuan population at it's peak was around 80 million or so. which was initself already a considerable drop back from the Song era which at certain points squeeked past 100 million.

Now on to the Ming where we have more relible figures..

1381 : 10,654,362 household, 59,873,305 people
1403 : 11,415,829 household, 66,598,337 people

Now, we can assume that the Ming's census wasn't the greatest either, though we do know that they nolonger had slaves so that part of the problem in the Yuan census shouldn't be a issue. so if we assume that the Ming's underestimation range in this period was less than that of the Yuan, than we come to the comeclusion that the Ming's real population figure at this point is probably in the low to mid 70 million range. which is down even from the Yuan and that was already after a decde or two of recovery.

There is a lot of debate on later Ming population, as the census became extremely detached rom the reality on the ground, later Ming census showed almost no increase in populatio nfrom 1403 (in fact it's usually lower), but everything else we can gather from this period suggest that simply can't be true if only because the Qing census immediately after the Ming's fall was still higher than those figure... and that was after the mini ice age + a series of devastating peasant rebellions. while the Qing census remained quite consistent and matched up pretty well later on with the new modern census after the Republic was formed.
 
Joined Mar 2011
5,772 Posts | 497+
Library of Alexandria
If your comparing to 2005, then keep in mind that...

A. the Current PRC is much bigger than the Ming dynasty, for one thing, most of Manchuria are open plains that is useful for farmiing today, but was obviously not avalible to the Ming in 1400. other places, like Tibet and Xin-Jiang, while obviously not nearly as useful farming wise, still have some farmland avalible as well. if you take out Manchuria and simple look at the Chinese core region (the middle/lower Yellow River / Yangsti region) it isn't actually bigger than Brazil.

Brazil is the same size as the PRC, and Brazil's arable land is actually greater than any other country in the planet today (including Russia). So it was not a very good comparison anyway. Also, much of this arable land in Brazil was "manufactured" thanks to the use of modern genetically altered crops and chemical fertilizers.

I think that Ming China was 3 million square kilometers of temperate lands. That's a huge amount of good temperate land and probably more than 0.25 million square kilometers of it were arable.

Anyway, very interesting post.
 
Joined Mar 2011
4,136 Posts | 11+
The Celestial Plain
Last edited:
According to J Bajaj and M D Srinivas in "Timeless India, Resurgent India" there are 124 million hectares of arable land in China+Tibet, which is 14% of their landmass. The United States has 177 million hectares of arable land, and India has 160 million hectares. Unfortunately, it is not sourced, so I can't verify those numbers.

http://www.cpsindia.org/dl/timeless/section1.pdf
 
Joined Mar 2011
4,136 Posts | 11+
The Celestial Plain
Last edited:
Guaporense said:
Brazil is the same size as the PRC, and Brazil's arable land is actually greater than any other country in the planet today (including Russia). So it was not a very good comparison anyway. Also, much of this arable land in Brazil was "manufactured" thanks to the use of modern genetically altered crops and chemical fertilizers.

I think that Ming China was 3 million square kilometers of temperate lands. That's a huge amount of good temperate land and probably more than 0.25 million square kilometers of it were arable.

Anyway, very interesting post.
What is your source for this? From the data I'm looking at, Brazil doesn't even have close to the largest amount of arable land. According to trading economics, whose data comes from the World Bank, China has 109 million hectares or 1.1 million sq kilometers of arable land(11.7% of land mass), compared to 61 million hectares or .62 million sq kms in Brazil (7.2% of landmass), and 162 million hectares or 1.6 million sq kms in the United States (17.7% land mass).


Agricultural land (sq. km) in China


Agricultural land (sq. km) in Brazil

Agricultural land (sq. km) in the United States

Also, much of the soil in Brazil and China seem low quality soil .

Global_soils_map_USDA.jpg


Global distribution of soil types of the USDA soil taxonomy system. Mollisols, shown here in dark green, are a good (though not the only) indicator of high soil fertility. They coincide to a large extent with the world's major grain producing areas like the North American Prairie States, the Pampa and Gran Chaco of South America and the Ukraine-to-Central Asia Black Earth belt.
Fertility (soil) - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Red is bad

Scientists originally thought that the heavy vegetation of tropical rain forests would provide rich nutrients, but as rainfall passes through the litter on the forest floor the rain is acidified and leaches minerals from the above soil layers. This forces plants to get their nutrition from decaying litter as oxisols are quite infertile due to the lack of organic matter and the almost complete absence of soluble minerals leached by the wet and humid climate.
[ame]http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oxisol[/ame]

China seems to be rich in Ultisols in the South
Ultisols vary in color from purplish-red, to a bright reddish-orange, to pale yellowish-orange and even some subdued yellowish-brown tones. They are typically quite acidic, often having a pH of less than 5. The red and yellow colors result from the accumulation of iron oxide (rust) which is highly insoluble in water. Major nutrients, such as calcium and potassium, are typically deficient in Ultisols, which means they generally cannot be used for sedentary agriculture without the aid of lime and other fertilizers, such as superphosphate. They can be easily exhausted, and require more careful management than Alfisols or Mollisols. However, they can be cultivated over a relatively wide range of moisture conditions.
[ame="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ultisols"]Ultisols - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame]

In the North is Entisols and Inceptisols

Entisols are defined as soils that do not show any profile development other than an A horizon. An Entisol has no diagnostic horizons, and most are basically unaltered from their parent material, which can be unconsolidated sediment or rock. Entisols are the second most abundant soil order (after Inceptisols), occupying about 16% of the global ice-free land area.
[ame="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Entisol"]Entisol - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame]

Inceptisols are a soil order in USDA soil taxonomy. They form quickly through alteration of parent material. They are older than entisols. They have no accumulation of clays, Iron, Aluminum or organic matter. They have an Ochric or Umbric horizon and a cambic subsurface horizon.
 
Joined May 2012
28 Posts | 0+
From memory.
Traditional Asian Agricultural practice is vastly superior, to current western scientific methods,The Asians were achieving vastly superior yields on their own.

Here is one method.

Rice,Fish.Duck.

Amalgamate paddies to areas circa one hectare.
The paddy is sloped to control and direct the runoff and water during the dry season.
Pits of one meter square are placed in strategic locations.

A variation of this is vastly reducing the density of plants which gives healthier pants and increased yield.
The ridges are much wider than current practices.


Rice is planted paying careful attention to quality of the seedlings.

The rain comes,the seedlings have taken root,the fingerlings are released and then the ducklings.

Results.The Ducks,mature and lay at no extra cost.
The fingerlings and rice thrive on their manure.
The ducks live off insect larvae,the rice is protected from all known insect predators.(no need for Monsanto et all).

The ducks are removed after a specific period as the water disappears.

The water drains towards the pits.
The fish will eventually enter the pits as the water disappears.
The pits can extend the fingerlings lives by up to two months.

Never burn the paddy,the husks are ploughed in.

The returns are vastly superior.
Greatly increased rice yield,with a huge protein bonus.

There are more effective variations on this.

No fertilizers or herbicides or pesticides.(We would have to ban it).

From memory,French scientists carried out research in Laos.
The results were verified with massive increases in yield.

Then the Thai Ministry of Agriculture duplicated and confirmed the findings,The King was trying to introduce sustainable agriculture and avoid the Green Revolution with its masive use of imported additives and environmental damage.

The point?
The fish and duck figures drastically increase Chinese protein yield and land fertility.
When you apply them further back,it may have an important bearing.


We assume that we are and always have been on an upward trajectory.
I very much doubt it.:)

I have listened to cogent arguments that China was much more badly effected by the Muslim invasions that commonly thought.
That the exodus to escape Kubla Khan and the following two centuries as Muslim rule was being imposed were not peaceful, and great amounts of knowledge and traditional practices were lost.
 
Joined Oct 2010
11,970 Posts | 30+
Canada
Quick question:

I read that agriculture in northern China required far less labor than in southern China. In the early 20th century, 90 labor days per hectare were required to bring a crop in the south, while only 30 labor days were required in the north. Why was this? Thanks in advance.
 
Joined Dec 2009
7,316 Posts | 331+
Quick question:

I read that agriculture in northern China required far less labor than in southern China. In the early 20th century, 90 labor days per hectare were required to bring a crop in the south, while only 30 labor days were required in the north. Why was this? Thanks in advance.

It is probably because they grew more wheat in northern China, while southern China grew more rice. Rice is more labor intensive (for the wet field practice used in China), although it gives higher yields per acre than wheat. Per Wikipedia on Rice, the average yield is 4.3 ton per hectare ([ame=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rice]Rice - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame], versus only 3.1 tons/hectare for wheat ([ame=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wheat]Wheat - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame]). Rice doesn't do as well in colder climates.
 
Joined Dec 2009
7,316 Posts | 331+
From memory.
Traditional Asian Agricultural practice is vastly superior, to current western scientific methods,The Asians were achieving vastly superior yields on their own.

By what standard are you making the claim? The crops grown in Asia, rice, has a higher yield per acre than the wheat typically grown in the west, but that is because by and large, the climate in western countries is not well suited for wheat.

But yield per acre is not the only criteria. The other criteria is how many workers did it take to harvest the crop. The asians may have been able to grow more crops per arcre, but they also took more workers to do it.

A western farmer using a horse might be able to harvest more crops than his asian counter part, because of the faster speed of the horse than the oxen typcially used in asia. It might take him more acres to harvest the same amount, but at the end of the day, what is more costly, land, or labor? Western Europe had a higher percentage of urban population than asia countries (China, India), in part because their farmers could harvest more food. In Asia, you find the paradox of high population density, but relatively low urbanization rates. You don't see that in the West. Countries that had high population density also had high urbanization rates. I contend that western agriculature was more efficient in terms of labor, even before the 1900.

You can also find in the West countries like Canada with low population density (9 persons per sq. mile), but a high urbanization rate (81%), something you don't find in oriental countries. China, in constrast to Canada, had a population density of 365 per sq. mile, but an urbanization rate of only 47%. India was 954 per sq. mile, and urbanization rate of 30%, compared to the US population density of 84 per sq. mile, and an urbanization rate of 82%. Since both US and Canada are net food exporters, their high rate of urbanization is not because they depend on food imports from other countries, but because of their labor efficient agriculture. Only 2 to 3% of the US population is devoted to agriculture, compared to a much higher percentage in India and China.

(Population Density link: Population Density per Square Mile of Countries — Infoplease.com , data for urbanization figures came from https://www.cia.gov/library/publications/the-world-factbook/fields/2212.html )

Finally, US production of all cereals is 6,988 kg/hectare vs China's 5,521 kg/hectare, and only 2 to 3% of the US population are farmers, versus something like 20% or so for China. Cereal yield (kg per hectare) | Data | Table

(China has a population of around a 1 billion, and some 225 million farmers China )
 
Joined Dec 2009
7,316 Posts | 331+
Last edited:
The Roman Empire urbanization rate is estimated to be around 8 to 15% http://soks.wustl.edu/urbanization.pdf, and I have seem some estimates for the urbanization rate of ancient China to be as low as 3% http://pareto.uab.es/sempdf/macro/2010/Voth.pdf. However, I have seen other estimates of urbanization rate for China to be around 11%, so if we assume that Rome and China had simlar urbanization rates, Roman agriculture would have to be comparable to Chinese agriculture in efficiency, since the Romans didn't import food from outside the empire, and the size of the Roman empire in both population and area was comparable to Han China. Rome couldn't support a comparable number of urban city dwellers to China if didn't have an agriculture to support them.

If the Roman urbanization rate was signiicantly higher than ancient China, then the Roman agriculture would have to be more efficient than the Chinese agriculture to support the empire. Higher urbanization rates means more people living in cities, and fewer farmers.


(Note, I know of some estimates for Song urban rates around 20%, but I find them most unlikely, since Song China would have had a higher urbanization rate than 1970 China! I don't see any sign of massive urban collaspe that you had in the European Dark Ages to support a premise that although China's population grew, its cities became smaller. In any case, there are those who estimate a much higher population and urbanization rate for the Roman empire as well, and the argument remains the same - if Romans were feeding the same number of people on a similar amount of land using the same number of farmers, then their agriculture had to be similar in efficiency. For discussions on the High vs Low Count of the Roman Empire population, see http://www.princeton.edu/~pswpc/pdfs/scheidel/070706.pdf )
 
Joined Sep 2012
1,610 Posts | 3+
varanasi uttar pradesh, india
From memory.
Traditional Asian Agricultural practice is vastly superior, to current western scientific methods,The Asians were achieving vastly superior yields on their own.

Here is one method.

Rice,Fish.Duck.

Amalgamate paddies to areas circa one hectare.
The paddy is sloped to control and direct the runoff and water during the dry season.
Pits of one meter square are placed in strategic locations.

A variation of this is vastly reducing the density of plants which gives healthier pants and increased yield.
The ridges are much wider than current practices.


Rice is planted paying careful attention to quality of the seedlings.

The rain comes,the seedlings have taken root,the fingerlings are released and then the ducklings.

Results.The Ducks,mature and lay at no extra cost.
The fingerlings and rice thrive on their manure.
The ducks live off insect larvae,the rice is protected from all known insect predators.(no need for Monsanto et all).

The ducks are removed after a specific period as the water disappears.

The water drains towards the pits.
The fish will eventually enter the pits as the water disappears.
The pits can extend the fingerlings lives by up to two months.

Never burn the paddy,the husks are ploughed in.

The returns are vastly superior.
Greatly increased rice yield,with a huge protein bonus.

There are more effective variations on this.

No fertilizers or herbicides or pesticides.(We would have to ban it).

From memory,French scientists carried out research in Laos.
The results were verified with massive increases in yield.

Then the Thai Ministry of Agriculture duplicated and confirmed the findings,The King was trying to introduce sustainable agriculture and avoid the Green Revolution with its masive use of imported additives and environmental damage.

The point?
The fish and duck figures drastically increase Chinese protein yield and land fertility.
When you apply them further back,it may have an important bearing.


We assume that we are and always have been on an upward trajectory.
I very much doubt it.:)

I have listened to cogent arguments that China was much more badly effected by the Muslim invasions that commonly thought.
That the exodus to escape Kubla Khan and the following two centuries as Muslim rule was being imposed were not peaceful, and great amounts of knowledge and traditional practices were lost.

muslim invasions in china? what do you mean kublai was a muslim?
 
Joined Feb 2011
10,194 Posts | 3,839+
Last edited:
The Roman Empire urbanization rate is estimated to be around 8 to 15% http://soks.wustl.edu/urbanization.pdf, and I have seem some estimates for the urbanization rate of ancient China to be as low as 3% http://pareto.uab.es/sempdf/macro/2010/Voth.pdf. However, I have seen other estimates of urbanization rate for China to be around 11%, so if we assume that Rome and China had simlar urbanization rates, Roman agriculture would have to be comparable to Chinese agriculture in efficiency, since the Romans didn't import food from outside the empire, and the size of the Roman empire in both population and area was comparable to Han China. Rome couldn't support a comparable number of urban city dwellers to China if didn't have an agriculture to support them.
You are using different definitions for Roman urbanization (communities of 1000 or 5000 people count as cities) and Chinese urbanization (communities of only 10,000 or more people count as cities). The Chinese estimates for urbanization is formulated by Rozman and Maddison, with the lowest estimate being 3.8%, because their definition of "city" is communities with populations of 10,000 or more, a extremely conservative view. It's hardly a fair comparison. On the other hand high estimates such as Zhao's put Han China at 15% urbanization. Historians such as Bairoch give double-digit urbanization for Rome because their definition of urbanization is a community of 5000 people, or sometimes even 1000.

If the Roman urbanization rate was signiicantly higher than ancient China, then the Roman agriculture would have to be more efficient than the Chinese agriculture to support the empire. Higher urbanization rates means more people living in cities, and fewer farmers.
A comparison of the top Roman/Han cities:

For Han cities, from Hou Han Shu:
1) Linzi: 500,000
2) Chang'an: 400,000
3) Chengdu: 381,280
4) Maoling: 305,435
5) Luoyang: 264195
6) Handan: ~200,000 - 400,000
7) Lu: 260,000
8) Changling: 250,285
9) Yanling: 245,505
10) Wan: 237,735

The estimate for Roman cities are less well-documented, but here is one estimation from Bowman/Wilson:
1) Rome: 1,000,000
2) Alexandria: 500,000
3) Carthage: 300,000
4) Antioch: 250,000
5) Ptolemais: 125,000
6) Memphis 125,000
7) Lepcis Magna: 90,000
8) Syracuse: 90,000
9) Athens: 90,000
10) Corinth: 80,000

As one can see, the top 10 cities of the Han already in itself make up 4.5% of the population, while the top 10 cities of Rome make up 3.8 percent of the population, assuming both empires had a total population of ~70 million.

The less evenly distributed city size for Rome supports what Bairoch said about Roman urbanization having a parasitic relationship to Roman agriculture.

(Note, I know of some estimates for Song urban rates around 20%, but I find them most unlikely, since Song China would have had a higher urbanization rate than 1970 China! I don't see any sign of massive urban collaspe that you had in the European Dark Ages to support a premise that although China's population grew, its cities became smaller. In any case, there are those who estimate a much higher population and urbanization rate for the Roman empire as well, and the argument remains the same -
20% might be too high, but keep in mind Mongols who conquered the Song tend to butcher a lot of cities, killing every man, woman, and child. Song collapse was devastating, although the reason was more directly caused by humans. Low counts estimates by Rozman show 5% urbanization of cities 10,000(not 5,000) or more for the Tang, although my own sources from Hou Han Shu and archeology of city area implies twice that. After all, just the top ten cities already make up 4.5% of the population for the Han. If Rozman defined cities less conservatively(communities of only 5,000 people or more like what Roman historians did), his urbanization rate would increase as well.

if Romans were feeding the same number of people on a similar amount of land using the same number of farmers, then their agriculture had to be similar in efficiency. For discussions on the High vs Low Count of the Roman Empire population, see http://www.princeton.edu/~pswpc/pdfs...del/070706.pdf )
Rome and Han did not have similar amounts of [cultivated]land. Roman population density was more evenly distributed, while Han populations in the South was almost negligible compared to the northeast. This means much land in southern Han were not cultivated. Plus because farmers could be planting cash crops, such logic about using urbanization/population to measure agricultural productivity would be insufficient anyway.
 
Joined Dec 2009
7,316 Posts | 331+
You are using different definitions for Roman urbanization (communities of 1000 or 5000 people count as cities) and Chinese urbanization (communities of only 10,000 or more people count as cities). The Chinese estimates for urbanization is formulated by Rozman and Maddison, with the lowest estimate being 3.8%, because their definition of "city" is communities with populations of 10,000 or more, a extremely conservative view. It's hardly a fair comparison. On the other hand high estimates such as Zhao's put Han China at 15% urbanization. Historians such as Bairoch give double-digit urbanization for Rome because their definition of urbanization is a community of 5000 people, or sometimes even 1000.

And I could quote higher urban rates for the Romans as well. I gave Han China the benefit of the doubt, and used a much higher number than the sources. Given the numerous remains of Roman, and the total lack of similar remains for Han cities, gives a stronger case to the Roman claim.

A comparison of the top Roman/Han cities:

For Han cities, from Hou Han Shu:

1) Linzi: 500,000
2) Chang'an: 400,000
3) Chengdu: 381,280
4) Maoling: 305,435
5) Luoyang: 264195
6) Handan: ~200,000 - 400,000
7) Lu: 260,000
8) Changling: 250,285
9) Yanling: 245,505
10) Wan: 237,735

The estimate for Roman cities are less well-documented, but here is one estimation from Bowman/Wilson:
1) Rome: 1,000,000
2) Alexandria: 500,000
3) Carthage: 300,000
4) Antioch: 250,000
5) Ptolemais: 125,000
6) Memphis 125,000
7) Lepcis Magna: 90,000
8) Syracuse: 90,000
9) Athens: 90,000
10) Corinth: 80,000

You comparisons are way off for a number of reasons. While a wealth of archaeological data supports the population values given for Roman cities, numbers given by ancient writers must always be taken with a grain of salt and some skeptism, especially for sources written several centuries after the fact, as Hou Han Shu (books of the later Han). Ancient writers of all cultures were notorius for exaggeration in numbers, and the ancient Chinese were no exception. Many of the cities listed, I could not find in other sources, and it they were as large as he said, there should be some remains that some archaeologist could find and discovered.

1. While I could find Linzi, the values he gave were for a time period earlier than the Roman Empire. The population of Linzi appears to be only 1/5 the number given during Roman times. Many of the other cities listed I could not find to confirm.

the Records of the Grand Historian, the population of Linzi in the fourth and third centuries B.C. was said to be 70,000 households, with at least 210,000 adult males. Scholars today believe this was somewhat exaggerated. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Linzi

2. The Han cities did not have those values all at the same time. As the capital of ancient China moved from one city to another, the cities experience great population shifts. At the time when Linzi supposedly had 500,000 in the 3rd century B.C., Chang'an wasn't even founded yet:

At its founding in 195 BC, the population of Changan was 146,000.[4] http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chang'an
At 1 CE, for example, one chart I found puts Chang'an at 400,000, but Linzi at only 100,000, and Louyang had 200,000, Chengdu only 100,000. In 100 CE, Chang'an had only 100,000 and Louyang 400,000, with Chengdu at 70,000. [ame="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_urban_community_sizes"]http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_urban_community_sizes[/ame]

In contrast, the Roman cities were more consistent in their populations, and many of the largest Roman urban areas remain major cities long after the Roman empire fell.
 
3. You are missing a number of Roman cities that had higher levels of population than what is on your list. Ephesus had possibly 350,000 to 500,000, Smyrna had 250,000, and Pergammum had 150,000, and they were not even on your list. Values can be found: http://www.tulane.edu/~august/H303/handouts/Population.htm

And that does not even include cities Lugdunum, which had a population of 40,000 to 200,000 [ame="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lugdunum"]http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lugdunum#cite_note-0[/ame], Trier, Germany with 70,000, or London with 45,000 to 60,000. The numerous remains of Roman cities testify to their size and existence, while the lack of similar ruins for Chinese cities makes it valid to question whether they were as large as claimed.
 
As one can see, the top 10 cities of the Han already in itself make up 4.5% of the population, while the top 10 cities of Rome make up 3.8 percent of the population, assuming both empires had a total population of ~70 million.

As I pointed out, you are using populations from different periods of time for your Han cities, which exagerates the value for the Han, and you are missing some large Roman cities, which skews the results for Rome.

If you take just the city of Antioch, at 350,000, and a population of Roman Syria of around 7 million ([ame="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_Syria"]http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_Syria[/ame]), that would give 5% urban rate based on Antioch alone, and not take into account major cities like Damascus and Jerusalem found in the Roman province of Syria, so the actual urban rate would be higher.
Or take Alexandria, with a population of 500,000 and a population of Roman Egypt of 8 million (Josephus gives a figure of 7.5 million not including Alexandria), also gives a minimum urban rate of 6%, similar to the value we get with Antioch. When we take other cities into account, the actual urban rate in these areas would be higher.

If you take Smyrna (250,000), Ephesus (350,000) and Pergamum (150,000) and an Roman Asia Minor population of 15 million http://www.tulane.edu/~august/H303/handouts/Population.htm, you again get a minimum urban rate of around 5%.

Using the values of the large Roman cities you left out, and substituting them for cities with less population gives an average for the 10 cities of an urban rate of 4.2%. And replacing the excessive values on just the few cities I listed gives a value of 3.2% for Han China.
less evenly distributed city size for Rome supports what Bairoch said about Roman urbanization having a parasitic relationship to Roman agriculture.

It also shows the greater transporation technology of Rome that they could support such as large city. With the ability to transport the food, Rome's large size could not be support. Chinese cities reached Rome's only many centuries later, during Tang times, because the Han Chinese did not have the technology and infrastructure to support a city of Rome's size.

Rome and Han did not have similar amounts of [cultivated]land. Roman population density was more evenly distributed, while Han populations in the South was almost negligible compared to the northeast. This means much land in southern Han were not cultivated. Plus because farmers could be planting cash crops, such logic about using urbanization/population to measure agricultural productivity would be insufficient anyway.

Do have any facts to support any of those claims? You made several claims, but haven't provide any facts. You assume that the less populated south had less land cultivated, but maybe they were exporting food to support the higher populations in the north. And what "commerical" crops did the Chinese grow? Romans exported cash crops of wine as far as India. What food crop did the Chinese export to India?

In any case, if the Roman population was more even distributed, it was because the Romans were more advanced in developing all their lands, not just some of them. They built large areas in cities that previously had none, not in just part of their empire, but throughout. By your own admission, the Han neglected significant parts of their empire, and did not develop the south, while the Romans developed even a far off province like Britain.
 
Joined Feb 2011
10,194 Posts | 3,839+
Last edited:
And I could quote higher urban rates for the Romans as well. I gave Han China the benefit of the doubt, and used a much higher number than the sources. Given the numerous remains of Roman, and the total lack of similar remains for Han cities, gives a stronger case to the Roman claim.
That has nothing to do with what I said. What you quoted was: You are using different definitions for Roman urbanization (communities of 1000 or 5000 people count as cities) and Chinese urbanization (communities of only 10,000 or more people count as cities). The Chinese estimates for urbanization is formulated by Rozman and Maddison, with the lowest estimate being 3.8%, because their definition of "city" is communities with populations of 10,000 or more, a extremely conservative view. It's hardly a fair comparison. On the other hand high estimates such as Zhao's put Han China at 15% urbanization. Historians such as Bairoch give double-digit urbanization for Rome because their definition of urbanization is a community of 5000 people, or sometimes even 1000.

If you gave the Han a much "higher number than the sources", then please provide a source which states that Han urbanization is lower than 3%. Give the quote and also a quote on its definition of a city. As revealed by me, part of the reason why Rozman estimated such low city counts (which is actually 3.8 rather than the 3 you gave) was because he used a conservative definition for city (communities of 10,000 or more people). More liberal estimates used by Zhao put Han urban density as high as 17% because he used a very liberal definition for city (2,000 or more people).

You comparisons are way off for a number of reasons. While a wealth of archaeological data supports the population values given for Roman cities, numbers given by ancient writers must always be taken with a grain of salt and some skeptism, especially for sources written several centuries after the fact, as Hou Han Shu (books of the later Han). Ancient writers of all cultures were notorius for exaggeration in numbers, and the ancient Chinese were no exception. Many of the cities listed, I could not find in other sources, and it they were as large as he said, there should be some remains that some archaeologist could find and discovered.

1. While I could find Linzi, the values he gave were for a time period earlier than the Roman Empire. The population of Linzi appears to be only 1/5 the number given during Roman times. Many of the other cities listed I could not find to confirm.
Please refrain from making things up. First of all the city size was calculated mostly from the Hou Han Shu. This came from the ancient CENSUS data, whereas Roman primary sources came from a single individual giving a personal estimate of city size. There's a difference in quality of estimations. One is a systematic headcount, another is an individual guess. From archeological sources, here is an estimate of Warring States city sizes:

Jinan: 4500 meters by 3600 meters. Even if we use a low estimation of 100 people per hectare that still gives 162,000 people.
Eastern Zheng city: 5100 meters by 2900 meters. Using a low estimate on urban density(100 people per hectare), that gives 147,900.
Yong city: 10 square kilometers, which gives 100,000 people
Shouchun: 26.35 square kilometers, which gives 263,600 people
Yueyang city: 2500 meters to 1600 meters. That gives 40,000 people
Zhouyuan: 15 square kilometers, 150,000 people
Linzi: 16 square kilometers, 160,000 people (though records indicate a family size of 70,000 and that it's impossible to walk the streets without brushing shoulders, so the people per hectare should be much higher)
Xiadu: 32 square kilometers, 320,000 people (largest excavated city of the era)
Yan: 3 square kilometers, 30,000 people

As can be seen, even using an unreasonably low count of 100 people per hectare for each city, the cities of the Warring States would amount to the hundreds of thousands already. These sizes were calculated exactly like Bowman/Wilson calculated Roman city size, except with a much lower assumption for population density. Ergo before you jump to conclusions about the accuracy of archeological sources, perhaps you should keep a more open mind. Just because you don't have sources available does not mean I don't have sources available. Mine came from a 2 CE census data from the Han Shu, for all but Linzi, in which the census did not record its number. However the Shiji recorded Linzi as having 100,000 households in population and was "larger than Chang'an". Assuming a reasonable number of 5 people per household, this gives Linzi 500,000 people.

2. The Han cities did not have those values all at the same time. As the capital of ancient China moved from one city to another, the cities experience great population shifts. At the time when Linzi supposedly had 500,000 in the 3rd century B.C., Chang'an wasn't even founded yet:
Linzi did not have 500,000 in 3rd century BC, it had 70,000 households or in other words ~350,000 people. By the time of the Han dynasty Linzi's population increased to 100,000 houselholds as according to the Shiji, and was said to be "bigger than Chang'an" (according to the amount of grain transported to Chang'an, it would have the ~400,000 people, the same population it held in 2CE). In other words, Linzi had ~500,000 people (100,000 families with 5 persons per family). Stop jumping to conclusions about things you haven't researched. Most of the data came from the Hou Han Shu from a single chapter on census data. In other words the population from the cities I listed ARE of the same time, with the exception of Linzi, which would be off by ~100 years or so.

At 1 CE, for example, one chart I found puts Chang'an at 400,000, but Linzi at only 100,000, and Louyang had 200,000, Chengdu only 100,000. In 100 CE, Chang'an had only 100,000 and Louyang 400,000, with Chengdu at 70,000.
Historical_urban_community_sizes

In contrast, the Roman cities were more consistent in their populations, and many of the largest Roman urban areas remain major cities long after the Roman empire fell.
Seriously, please use at least a fraction of the basic standard for sources that you often imposed on me. Wiki is not within that basic standard. Linzi was recorded to have a HOUSEHOLD population of 100,000. One hundred thousand is the number of FAMILIES in Linzi, not the number of people. The author probably made a typo, or a mistake. At the same time LuoYang's household population was calculated at 52,839. This means that its total population is ~264195, assuming an average family size of 5. The author probably got 200,000 for its population because he assumed an average family size of 4 (which is an incredibly conservative estimate). As for the rest, it's not even within the same time period as my estimates, so the point is moot. You [falsely] accuse me of using city sizes for different time periods yet here I see you doing exactly what you accuse me of.

3. You are missing a number of Roman cities that had higher levels of population than what is on your list. Ephesus had possibly 350,000 to 500,000, Smyrna had 250,000, and Pergammum had 150,000, and they were not even on your list. Values can be found: http://www.tulane.edu/~august/H303/handouts/Population.htm
I don't cherrypick the biggest cities from different authors, especially if they came from personal individual estimations. That makes statistics invalid. I got my estimations of city sizes from Bowmen. According to them, using city area from archeological excavations, Ephesus, Pergammum, and Smyrna were not that big.

As I pointed out, you are using populations from different periods of time for your Han cities, which exagerates the value for the Han
No, what you pointed out was merely what you negatively ASSUMED, without any basis at all, as you commonly do to all my posts. My evidence came from the Hou Han Shu, which have a census record for city population during 2 CE. With the exception of Linzi the top ten cities were all of the same time period. Census records never exaggerate intentionally by the definition of a census, or else government taxation would fall apart.

and you are missing some large Roman cities, which skews the results for Rome.
I did not. The source I used for Roman cities came from Bowman, who listed pretty much all relevant Roman cities. By his estimation cities such as Smyrna and Ephesus were not the largest. You cannot expect me to cherrypick the biggest number for each city for all the different estimations out there. Or else that would skew the results in favor of Rome. I could easily do the opposite and cherrypick the smallest estimation for each city as well.

If you take just the city of Antioch, at 350,000, and a population of Roman Syria of around 7 million (
History_of_Syria
), that would give 5% urban rate based on Antioch alone, and not take into account major cities like Damascus and Jerusalem found in the Roman province of Syria, so the actual urban rate would be higher.
Or take Alexandria, with a population of 500,000 and a population of Roman Egypt of 8 million (Josephus gives a figure of 7.5 million not including Alexandria), also gives a minimum urban rate of 6%, similar to the value we get with Antioch. When we take other cities into account, the actual urban rate in these areas would be higher.

If you take Smyrna (250,000), Ephesus (350,000) and Pergamum (150,000) and an Roman Asia Minor population of 15 million http://www.tulane.edu/~august/H303/handouts/Population.htm, you again get a minimum urban rate of around 5%.

Using the values of the large Roman cities you left out, and substituting them for cities with less population gives an average for the 10 cities of an urban rate of 4.2%. And replacing the excessive values on just the few cities I listed gives a value of 3.2% for Han China.
As explained before the reason why Ephesus, Smyrna, amongst others, were not on the list was because the estimations done by Bowman estimated them as in the tens of thousands rather than hundreds of thousands. I did not include the bigger numbers because that would be cherrypicking. What you are resorting to is exactly that. You combined different sources from different authors, choosing the number you liked best (ie the biggest). On the other hand for Han China you did the exact opposite, you combined different sources from different authors and chose the smallest number. You should at least try to hide your bias.
From Bowman/Wilson, Ephesus only had a total area of 224 ha which gives 33,600 people assuming a population density of 150 people per hectare. Pergamum had 219 ha which gives 32,850 people. He does admit, however, that 150 people/ha might be too low an estimate. Nevertheless, he gives Pergamum, Ephesus, and Smyrna a maximum of 90,000 people and a minimum of 50,000 rather than a number in the hundreds of thousands. This result would not change my estimate, as my list shows the tenth largest Roman city to be 80,000.

It also shows the greater transporation technology of Rome that they could support such as large city. With the ability to transport the food, Rome's large size could not be support. Chinese cities reached Rome's only many centuries later, during Tang times, because the Han Chinese did not have the technology and infrastructure to support a city of Rome's size.
Actually, the city of Xiangyang of Qin had the same parasitic relationship as Rome, in which QinShiHuang relocated 120,000 conquered families to the capital (~600,000 people). Combined with the population already there, the population would be around the same as that of Rome’s. Yes, the source here may be prone to exaggeration and not nearly as reliable as a census, but it’s no more reliable than the sources that tell of ~1 million population for Rome (by Augustus’ self-aggrandizement on the grain dole or the like). Archeological remains on area size for Rome show a city of only ~ half the population of the supposed 1 million. I gave Rome a population of 1 million anyway.

Do have any facts to support any of those claims? You made several claims, but haven't provide any facts. You assume that the less populated south had less land cultivated, but maybe they were exporting food to support the higher populations in the north.
On average each Han family had only 70 mou of land to cultivate, as from the census records from the Han Shu. Each mou would be able to generate ~60 liters of millet per normal year. As for population distribution:
Chinapob2.jpg


As shown the south clearly had less population than the north.

And what "commerical" crops did the Chinese grow? Romans exported cash crops of wine as far as India. What food crop did the Chinese export to India?
Wine and alfalfa were known by the Han dynasty, although they were originally from Greece(at least the former, anyway). Other major cash crops include silk(mulberry trees), hemp, and lacquer.

In any case, if the Roman population was more even distributed, it was because the Romans were more advanced in developing all their lands, not just some of them. They built large areas in cities that previously had none, not in just part of their empire, but throughout. By your own admission, the Han neglected significant parts of their empire, and did not develop the south, while the Romans developed even a far off province like Britain.
The South was only conquered from the Yue and Dai during mid-Western Han. Of course it wouldn’t be developed. Stop jumping to conclusions. You are also switching standards. First you say that if Rome and Han had the same amount of cultivated land, with the same amount of population and urbanization, then they have the same amount of agricultural expertise. Now, when it is revealed that the Han had less cultivated land, you instead say that this shows Roman superiority, whereas by your previous standard it would have been the other way around.
 

Trending History Discussions

Top