You mean false hopes of both.
The Treaty of Versailles was not revisioned. A "revision" means by mutual consent of the signatories. Hitler unilaterally scrapped its clauses one by one, first sneakily and then overtly. The only exception being the London Naval Treaty, which anyway Hitler then rushed to violate with the size of the Bismarck.
The German economy was not stabilised. Quite the opposite. Hitler launched a giant deficit spending policy by which it seemed things were getting better, but he was just kicking the debt to later years. Then he embarked in a multi-pronged economic scam against the German people (look up shining examples such as the MeFo junk bills, the scheme for the Volkswagen car, the fact that the state bonds being due in 1940 were unilaterally prolonged by the state) and saved the situation - temporarily - by embarking in large-scale plundering. One of the reasons why he had to invade and subjugate what remained of Czechoslovakia is that Germany could no longer pay its foreign debts, given that nobody accepted Reichsmarks any more (because, doh, they knew about the state of the German economy what you do not know) and they had run out of valuable foreign currency and gold. But Prague still had gold reserves and foreign currency.
In short, you are wrong because you don't actually know what you are talking about.