was chu/han dynasty actually vietnamese and not chinese?

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i have, have you? why don't you show me these dominant theories
You mean with things like these?: 楚系出土文献语言文字考论? Now, why don't YOU show me a single theory that speculates the Chu language is AA, or even Vietnamese.

ok? the ruler not wanting his people being fully accultured so there would still exist an ethnic distinction between ruler and ruled, why does that invalidate that they absorbed chinese culture for prestige? it's like the chinese adopting western suits, why do they choose that and not indigenous attire? why not adopt grass skirts? in our case why did the chu strangely choose to wear grass skirts?
Because the ruling elite did not consider Han ways more prestigious and maintained that the Manchu way was superior in spirit throughout the early Qing. The Han way was viewed as a corrupt influence more than anything else. There is a huge literature on this subject, I suggest you read them over.

you said 'there is no solid identification with some kind of "Chu ethnicity', i replied under confucianist influence that flourished under the han chu regionalist identity was suppressed, what's the problem exactly?

there's no way to elaborate on that without me getting in trouble for racism

You have not shown how a Chu ethnicity even exists in contrast to a Hua one in the 3rd century BC. There are no evidence that Hua is even an ethnicity in the modern sense of the word (certainly not a minzu), as its a rite/mores-based cultural identity. It is certainly not a descent-based identity as you obsess over. The commoners in the Spring and Autumn were NOT considered to be descended from the sage kings and did not share the same ancestor as the elite.

After the death of King Gong of Chu...
another misinterpration, when chu rulers started using the king title signifying their self percieved equality to zhou they internally rejected huaxia and began to create a self perceived separate parralel civilization to zhou as a kind of coping delusion, that's what it means to bring barbarians into huaxia, this is what happened in vietnam
The Wei and Qi both adopted the title of king in 334 BC, and the other states soon followed. What you said has absolutely no relevance to what language the Chu spoke or what its ethnic identity, if such a concept even existed, was. Barbarism in the Zhou simply meant states not adopting the Zhou rites, it is very different from what Yi meant in later times.

As for the Warring States Chu
like the Le before them, Dai Viet was like China and yet independent. Elite Vietnamese claimed classical culture as their own. Vietnamese saw themselves and their state as heirs to early northern states and co-inheritors of classical culture. As we have seen through the example of Le Tac, this position did not compromise their identification as Vietnamese.
You are mixing a bunch of things together into one hodgepodge of nationalistic mess. You jump from modern linguistics with a European origin to ancient notions of Hua/Yi dichotomy, to descent and mixes traditional Chinese ideas of identity and legitimacy with modern western notions of ethnicity, descent and language families. They do not overlap and you need to stop speaking them as if they are referring to the same thing. Being barbaric and speaking a non-Sinitic language do NOT overlap. Chu being barbarians does not indicate in any way, what language family it spoke.
 
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Also, about the Chu being barbarians having anything to do with what language it spoke, the Qin after Shang Yang's reforms were likewise considered a non-Hua barbarian state, yet it was clearly Sinitic speaking. It very clar that language is not related to whether a state was considered barbarian in Zhou times. Also in the Qing dynasty, even Mongolian was considered a Fanyan (regional language) of China, it does NOT mean dialect in the modern linguistic sense.
 
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For what is apparently not so important there is actually a lot of emphasis given. Whether someone was HuaXia or not wasn‘t so important and it was fluid? Well human nature tells something else actually. The people who regarded themselves as true HuaXia would have looked down on the others. Not without reason all kinds of people claimed descent from the yellow emperor for example. And ye to this day there are people who regard themselves as the the true Han aso. So no ethnicity wasn‘t all that fluid. This should be obvious.
 
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You are misunderstanding the argument. Hua was not really an ethnic identity, it was too fluid to be one, and that was the point. There are literally many passages from texts like Zuo Zhuan where a state simply ceases to be Hua or become Hua due to their one-time actions. People need to stop reading descent or language into it. It is completely different from the Han minzu identity today.
 
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I always figured that the Chu was multi ethnic - a little of this and that -> and whoever they conquered (Chen, Cai, etc.)
--> The Chen for example is the origin of the Surname of the "Chen" family, who ushered in Vietnam's golden age
--> The Cai - same as above, the origins of the surname "Cai."
The problem with this surname argument is the wrong path to determine ancestry. A person could claim today claim the surname Qin, but it does not mean that they are a direct descendant of the Qin Dynasty, even if they do have genealogies that claim it = that genealogy has a way of making people believe what they want to believe -- "I know a man in Leeds who earnestly believes he will be crowned King of England as soon as he can find the record of his ancestor's marriage to Perkin Warbeck; the fact that Warbeck's claim to the throne was ultimately invalidated, and that the Tudor dynasty he laid claim to has since been replaced by others, doesn't faze him in the least."

The Chu just had the bad luck to lose the battle over the Mandate of Heaven - the Qin just had the good luck of have 4 to 7 good kings in a row, while the Chu and the others festered, rotted from the inside, and were defeated.

now post Qin unification - one could argue the Chu / Han Contention - was the last gasp of the Chu. After that point, it was the "Mandate of Heaven" that determined the fate of the Kingdoms between the Four Seas.
 
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I have a question.

Why does any of this matter?
I heard that China is made up of several ethnic groups divided into provinces. Some ethnic groups do not understand each other's language. Therefore, in China there is a balance between centrifugal and centripetal tendencies. Historically, China has broken up several times and united several times. The last time China collapsed in the 1920s, and if not for the help of the USSR to Sun Yat-sen from the Kuomintang, then China would have consisted of many small states
 
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Also, about the Chu being barbarians having anything to do with what language it spoke, the Qin after Shang Yang's reforms were likewise considered a non-Hua barbarian state, yet it was clearly Sinitic speaking. It very clar that language is not related to whether a state was considered barbarian in Zhou times. Also in the Qing dynasty, even Mongolian was considered a Fanyan (regional language) of China, it does NOT mean dialect in the modern linguistic sense.

To demonstrate my point how Hua seem to be an identity based more on mores/rites and not on ethnicity, descent, or race, I will cite passages from the Gongyang Zhuan written in the Warring States;

"In the time of Gengcheng, Wu entered Chu, why is Wu no longer civilized? Because it went back being a barbarian. Why did it become a barbarian? It's lord abandoned the duty of a lord (by humiliating the Chu in uncivilized ways)....The Wu met the duke of Jin at Huangchi, why did Wu become civilized again? Because Wu became the head of the alliance...because it no longer stayed a barbarian and led China (in the alliance)."

It's very clear that Yi (barbarian) here refers to moral actions (and defending the Zhou and the Chinese states is considered moral) rather than anything ethnic and the state of Wu BECAME barbarian due to "abandoning the duty of a lord" and became a civilized (hua) state again when it led the Central States in an alliance.

The state of Wu became Chinese or barbarian in and out depending on its conduct that benefited other Chinese states.

Even Central Plains states can become barbarians. For example the Han scholar Dong Zhongshu wrote the following:

"Since the battle of Bi, this went the other way, how so? The Spring and Autumn Annals have no universal definition, things change. Now Jin became barbaric while the Chu became civilized."

This is just a few passages to prove the point that early Chinese ideas of "Chinese" (Hua) and "Barbarian" (Yi) is based purely on mores/rites which are very fluid and not on ethnicity or descent.
In sum, calling the Chu barbarian does NOT in any way reflects ethnicity, much less the linguistic category of the Chu language. Hua itself is not a strict ethnic identity because its based on Zhou mores/rites than anything else.
 
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It is entirely different. Korea did not use Chinese as a spoken language since the age of Goguryeo, Chinese writing held the same status Latin had in Medieval European countries. However, both Latin and Chinese writing at this point were standardized and easy to read regardless of your origin, which serves the exact purpose they are meant to. This is not the case for the Chu writting system. First of all the characters are structured very differently from the ones used by the northern states. It is clearly a local variation of the Huaxia writting system, and it certainly is not one that is simply borrowed from Sinitic speaking population, but one that is developed independently as a local literary tradition.
View attachment 57662(A comparison of writting systems of different Warring States, Chu is on 4th row, Qin is on 5th row)

You can also tell how incredibly widespred Chu writting system is by its presence in a variety of regions and contexts. You have Confucious, Mouist and Taoist literatures, classical historical documents, Western Zhou historical documents, legal documents, shaman divinations, rituals and calanders etc. Many of these documents were found from the south of YangTzi River, especially in Changsha, which was a Chu stronghold at the time.
The famous Metal Tallies of Lord Qi of E, a travel document issued by Chu royal court to its feudal lord shows the commercial caravan of the lord (150 ships and 50 carts) travelled from Henan (Northern China) through the water channels to different directions. The southest region they had travelled to was the Yuan and Xiang Rivers in southern Hunan, close to the Nanling Mountains. The tallies instruct Chu officials across the realm to not tax the lord`s caravan.
View attachment 57664View attachment 57665
(The travel route of Lord Qi`s caravan, the writting system was standardized across the realm so that people in the periphery of Chu can still read the decrees of the king)


What really is "Vietnamese" in 300 BC? Thats a modern concept, like people have pointed out. And there`s no doubt that AA languages existed on the southern part of what is known as China today, its not really a question since the southern "barbarians" Huaxia cultures referred to as Baiyue and Baipu were most certainly speakers of AA. The question that is being put forward here is that whether the ruling class or the majority of Chu State spoke a non-Sinitic language. The evidence suggests that the ruling class spoke a Sinitic language with certain degree of AA influence, while OP claim that they spoke AA language, from a few words here and there. And then he go beyond the discussion of language and associate the modern identity of Vietnam with an entity that seized to exist since the 3rd century BC because "the Chinese are doing it"


So you traced Vietnamese back to Chu language using like three words? And you completely disregard the fact that other AA language speakers existed on the south of Chu, the various Yue tribes and other groups indegenious to the south of Yangtzi River. Instead you decide it is a good idea to claim that an entity that had its own sophisticated Sinitic writting traditions to speak an AA language. Also you failed to differentiate the Chu spech of early Zhou and the one close to the unification of Qin. Close to the unification, the northern states had long abandoned the concept that Chu was a barbarian state, and no evidence suggest that Chu and northern people cannot communicate with each other. It was noted that they had accents, but no more unintelligable than the other regional dialects.


So scholars having difficulty in undecipher certain characters= they are AA root words? How exactly did you come up with this conclusion, and which character are you referring to? This is not even flimsy evidence, its non-evidence.


No one had ever said that Chu language did not receive influence from AA languages. In fact I would be surprised if Yue tribes did not integrate into Chu culture in massive numbers. But automatically saying someone who came up with different conclusions than yours has nationalist bias? Okay who is the author without such bias? So far you have failed to present a single study where a scholar claims Chu language itself to be of AA origin. Instead you misinterpret their conclusions and disregard the existing evidence on Chu language.


There is no such thing as the "true ethnic of Chu/Han", ethnicity was fluid in pre-modern time and especially in and out of the Huaxia cultural sphere. Huaxia was a cultural concept that was based largely on the shared cultural and ritual practices, and to a lesser extent, language. There is no difinitive distinction between Huaxia and non-Huaxia people on their periphery as identity and perception changes quickly and leave no permenant marks. Many many non-Huaxia people became Huaxia in the Warring States because they were conquered and subjegated to the cultural norms of the states. Some even willingly transform themselves to resemble their Huaxia counterparts, for instance the State of Zhongshan established by the Baidi people close to the northern steppes. Even if some subjects of the Chu states spoke non-Sinitic languages, it doesn`t mean that they consider themselves to be a separate ethnic group, and it certainly doesnt mean that their speech won`t change throughout the time.
This whole "ethnicity" debate surves nothing but a modern nationalistic narrative of the past. You keep complaining that Chinese government is biased in their propoganda but in the end you are doing exactly the same thing.


Like I have demonstrated, Liu was born in a region with influence from various Warring States and that being a peasant he is not likely an immigrant from the Chu regions that were lost to Qin. Most peasants who lived in Jianghan Plain during Qin`s conquest continued to live there, and eventually became culturally-similar to the Qin people from Guanzhong. Only Chu aristocratic families and their servants relocated to the east. In any case, Liu was most likely a local who developed affection of Chu culture because of its recent presence in the region.


I suggest yoyu to look at the map first. Of course Chu speakers would cluster in the Chen area, as thats where the capital was relocated after 279 BC. The capital was called Yingchen, and it used the city of Chen. Pei City, on the other hand was about 207 km away from Chen, and was geographically much loser to the border of Wei than it is to the Chu capital. An equivalence of what you said is that "since Beijing had many Manchu speakers during Qing, there must be an equal amount in Shijiazhuang, or other random cities in Zhili Province.

Also, are you telling me that a non-Sinitic language and a Sinitic one (Chen) sounded similar to Yang Xiong, because they share some non-basice words? So as brilliant as Yang Xiong is, he failed to document in his book Fangyan(Dialects) that the entire Chu region spoke a language that is completely different from other regions? Its hard to take your argument seriously at this point.


This is just purely your imagination. Chu royal family had intermarried with Qin royal family for generations at the end of Warring States. Many people from Chu State ended up serving the Qin court, like Li Si, the grand chancellor of Qin Shi Huang. And remind me why northern people would reject Chu culture because they idolized Taoism? Your argument makes no sense at all. One of the biggest Taoist patrons, the Empress Dou of Xiaowen, originated from Qinghe Prefacture, modern Hebei.

Also in its early ages the Han empire was basically a replica of Qin, from legal to military system. There are also plenty of Qin-northern states influence in Western Han culture. More importantly, none of these has remotely anything to do with the original debate on the origin of Chu language. You keep switching your argument between language family and cultural sense of belonging of some people who hailed from the former territory of Chu, and you wrap these statements that are irrelevent to each other together with a non-exsistant concept of "Chu ethnic", its pointless. Liu Bang could have spoken whatever language he wants and still adopt certain aspects of the Chu culture into his court.
yes, that's how it works, obviously more words should be found to confirm but it's enough that we can deduce what the base language was, we're defining ethnic, are vietnamese and cambodians the same ethnic because we both speak aa? there's enough cultural historical evidence to link vietnamese to the chu as direct descendants and what relevance is the sophisticated writing tradition? chu nom existing in vietnam means vietnamese didn't speak aa?

a cognate is not an influence, it represents shared descent, that's the whole point so we can determine what the base language of chu speakers was - sinitic or aa, to have such words infused in chu speech means the base must be aa and chu ethnics infused sinitic into their language not the other way around

what's nationalist about saying qing was manchu ethnic not chinese/han? it's literally anti nationalist, nationalist is claiming everything within modern borders belongs to you, all i want to see is that it's made clear to the world chu/han was not chinese but actually it's own ethnic that conquered chinese

what does general region mean to you? is chen closer to pei relative to jing? yes? then it's not farfetched for chu ethnics to be in the general vicinity, chu was the first to adopt county administration so no it wasn't only aristocrats that moved, at least some must have have been staffed by chu ethnics so who knows what happened, maybe the lius were disgraced officials, disgraced servants, deserters, many scenarios exist, it only matters that chu ethnics were in the region

yang xiong didn't say anything, he just noted down words of different regions, that was the analysis of the chinese scholar and i don't see any problem, it's like cantonese has closer sounding numbers to thai than mandarin, and c
chinese can't understand each other today where you getting they could back then? chu elites learned yayan or whatever to communicate with huaxia but their native speech was probably incomprehensible, we can see can long after warring states it was still heavily aa
Yang Yuanshen楊元慎launches into a lengthy anti-southern diatribe. In one section, he discusses southern languages as follows: “Although Qin survivors and Han convicts mixed in using some civilized speech, nonetheless the difficult languages of Min and Chu cannot be changed 雖復秦餘漢罪雜以華音, 復閩楚難言不可改變.” 10 Yang acknowledges here that there were a certain number of people in the south who spoke a “civilized language,” that is, a northern one, but he saw them as a tiny minority of exiles awash in a sea of barbarian peoples, whom they were unable to influence.

The language of these “other peoples” is discussed by Wei Shou, the author of the History of the [Northern] Wei, in his chapter on the southern regimes:

The officials of the central plains exclaim that Jiangdong people (i.e., thesoutherners) are all acting like badgers, and said they were akin to foxes and badgers. As for the Ba, Shu, Man, Liao, Xi, Li, Chu, and Yue [peoples]: their languages are as dissimilar as the sounds of birds and the cries of fowl, their preferences all as different as those of monkeys, snakes, fish, and turtles.
You mean with things like these?: 楚系出土文献语言文字考论? Now, why don't YOU show me a single theory that speculates the Chu language is AA, or even Vietnamese.


Because the ruling elite did not consider Han ways more prestigious and maintained that the Manchu way was superior in spirit throughout the early Qing. The Han way was viewed as a corrupt influence more than anything else. There is a huge literature on this subject, I suggest you read them over.



You have not shown how a Chu ethnicity even exists in contrast to a Hua one in the 3rd century BC. There are no evidence that Hua is even an ethnicity in the modern sense of the word (certainly not a minzu), as its a rite/mores-based cultural identity. It is certainly not a descent-based identity as you obsess over. The commoners in the Spring and Autumn were NOT considered to be descended from the sage kings and did not share the same ancestor as the elite.


The Wei and Qi both adopted the title of king in 334 BC, and the other states soon followed. What you said has absolutely no relevance to what language the Chu spoke or what its ethnic identity, if such a concept even existed, was. Barbarism in the Zhou simply meant states not adopting the Zhou rites, it is very different from what Yi meant in later times.


You are mixing a bunch of things together into one hodgepodge of nationalistic mess. You jump from modern linguistics with a European origin to ancient notions of Hua/Yi dichotomy, to descent and mixes traditional Chinese ideas of identity and legitimacy with modern western notions of ethnicity, descent and language families. They do not overlap and you need to stop speaking them as if they are referring to the same thing. Being barbaric and speaking a non-Sinitic language do NOT overlap. Chu being barbarians does not indicate in any way, what language family it spoke.
a chinese source? so as i said there's no dominant theories or at least intellectually honest dominant theories but there are competing theories, norman and mei being an aa one but mostly i stitched together different information from different scholars

manchus were already corrupting themselves as jurchens so what were these ways that were so special? some jurchen rulers also cried about over sinincisation so no, clearly just like their forebearers manchus were concerned about ethnic decay, they could force hundreds of millions of chinese to wear the que but they couldn't't stop hundreds of thousands of their own people from adopting chinese culture despite it being inferior in spirit? is the huge literature you got this from also chinese?

chu was the first to use king not like orthodox states that only used it when zhou was basically dead
I have a question.

Why does any of this matter?
why did it matter to greece that macedonia change it's name to north macedonia?
 
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why did it matter to greece that macedonia change it's name to north macedonia?

Partly because North Macedonia laid claim to certain modern-day Greek (as well as Albanian, Bulgarian and Serbian) territories.

So tell me again, why does any of this matter? What possible difference does it make to anyone living today whether Chu/Han were "Vietnamese" or "Chinese"?
 
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a chinese source? so as i said there's no dominant theories or at least intellectually honest dominant theories but there are competing theories, norman and mei being an aa one but mostly i stitched together different information from different scholars
Yes, and I suggest you only criticize something after you read them or it's disingenuous. Brushing aside some argument just because a Chinese scholar wrote it is lazy, insincere, and just outright unprofessional and its especially comical when the leading scholars of this topic are in China. Not only is Norman's study outdated and made before the new Chu documents were found, Norman did NOT argue Chu was AA, he only said one of the people in the Chu might have been AA, you are purposely distorting what he said. Quote the other scholars, and do not use sources that are outdated. Right now you are resting your arguments on nothing but your baseless speculations, not to mention, your idea that Chu spoke a non-Sinitic language because it's referred to as a barbarian in Zhou sources is already thoroughly debunked.
manchus were already corrupting themselves as jurchens so what were these ways that were so special? some jurchen rulers also cried about over sinincisation so no, clearly just like their forebearers manchus were concerned about ethnic decay, they could force hundreds of millions of chinese to wear the que but they couldn't't stop hundreds of thousands of their own people from adopting chinese culture despite it being inferior in spirit?
You said the Manchus adopted mandarin and Chinese culture because they thought Han culture was more prestigious, I merely proved that incorrect by showing how primary sources of the time viewed Han customs as inferior, not more prestigious. Your questions here are completely irrelevant to that. A culture that is attractive does not mean it is prestigious.
is the huge literature you got this from also chinese?
The fact that you are concerned more about the nationality of a scholar over a linguistic topic rather than the arguments themselves speaks volumes about your methodology if it can even be called one. And no, its called the New Qing History (scholars making these arguments include Pamela Crossley and Mark Elliott) a very notable scholarship in the west right now, and I'm surprised someone trying to argue with me on Qing history do not even know about it.

chu was the first to use king not like orthodox states that only used it when zhou was basically dead
And? This does not prove in any shape or form, that the Chu spoke an AA language.
 
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Partly because North Macedonia laid claim to certain modern-day Greek (as well as Albanian, Bulgarian and Serbian) territories.

So tell me again, why does any of this matter? What possible difference does it make to anyone living today whether Chu/Han were "Vietnamese" or "Chinese"?
and the other part was
North Macedonia was accused by Greece of appropriating symbols and figures that are historically considered part of Greek culture such as the Vergina Sun and Alexander the Great

justice for vietnamese people? how can china just approriate history like that? and also many things such as dragon boat festival, zongzi, chinese complaiming about lunar new year, this date was fixed in the han dynasty so idk why they get upset it's not called cny, chopsticks came into use during the han while huaxia ate with their hands, paper was invented by a hunan man, so many things, why is this all credited to the chinese?
Yes, and I suggest you only criticize something after you read them or it's disingenuous. Brushing aside some argument just because a Chinese scholar wrote it is lazy, insincere, and just outright unprofessional. Not only is Norman's study outdated and made before the new Chu documents were found, Norman did NOT argue Chu was AA, he only said one of the people in the Chu might have been AA, you are purposely distorting what he said. Quote the other scholars, and do not use sources that are outdated. Right now you are resting your arguments on nothing but your baseless speculations, not to mention, your idea that Chu spoke a non-Sinitic language because it's referred to as a barbarian in Zhou sources is already thoroughly debunked.

You said the Manchus adopted mandarin and Chinese culture because they thought Han culture was more prestigious, I merely proved that incorrect by showing how primary sources of the time viewed Han customs as inferior, not more prestigious. Your questions here are completely irrelevant to that.

No, its called the New Qing History, a very notable scholarship in the west right now, and I'm surprised someone trying to argue with me on Qing history do not even know about it.


And? This does not prove in any shape or form, that the Chu spoke an AA language.
watch the chinese experts speaking parts and tell me chinese scholarship has any integrity, it's a joke and i'm pretty sure n&m did say the language chu was aa, idk what you read


it doesn't matter what they say, ccp cries about westernisation all the time, saying is one thing but if they don't stop it then clearly it's only empty rhetoric

when did i say it did?
 
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watch the chinese experts speaking parts and tell me chinese scholarship has any integrity, it's a joke and i'm pretty sure n&m did say the language chu was aa, idk what you read


it doesn't matter what they say, ccp cries about westernisation all the time, saying is one thing but if they don't stop it then clearly it's only empty rhetoric

when did i say it did?

Yes, because ALL Chinese scholars are the same and some random speaker on TV represents all Chinese scholarship on the issue:vomit:...So you basically have no arguments other than the fact that the scholar is Chinese and hence unreliable, without even reading them, got it. Also, YOU are the one claiming the Chu language is AA, something you have not demonstrated with any scholarship whatsoever despite being asked again and again. So who's the joke?
 
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To demonstrate my point how Hua seem to be an identity based more on mores/rites and not on ethnicity, descent, or race, I will cite passages from the Gongyang Zhuan written in the Warring States;

"In the time of Gengcheng, Wu entered Chu, why is Wu no longer civilized? Because it went back being a barbarian. Why did it become a barbarian? It's lord abandoned the duty of a lord (by humiliating the Chu in uncivilized ways)....The Wu met the duke of Jin at Huangchi, why did Wu become civilized again? Because Wu became the head of the alliance...because it no longer stayed a barbarian and led China (in the alliance)."

It's very clear that Yi (barbarian) here refers to moral actions (and defending the Zhou and the Chinese states is considered moral) rather than anything ethnic and the state of Wu BECAME barbarian due to "abandoning the duty of a lord" and became a civilized (hua) state again when it led the Central States in an alliance.

The state of Wu became Chinese or barbarian in and out depending on its conduct that benefited other Chinese states.

Even Central Plains states can become barbarians. For example the Han scholar Dong Zhongshu wrote the following:

"Since the battle of Bi, this went the other way, how so? The Spring and Autumn Annals have no universal definition, things change. Now Jin became barbaric while the Chu became civilized."

This is just a few passages to prove the point that early Chinese ideas of "Chinese" (Hua) and "Barbarian" (Yi) is based purely on mores/rites which are very fluid and not on ethnicity or descent.
In sum, calling the Chu barbarian does NOT in any way reflects ethnicity, much less the linguistic category of the Chu language. Hua itself is not a strict ethnic identity because its based on Zhou mores/rites than anything else.
btw wrong, explanation of huaxia ethnic
there is cultural huaxia, there is ethnic huaxia, just like a chinese in america can try to assimilate and be wannabe american all they want, they will never be considered truly american, as soon as they do something wrong they will be called chinese this or that, go back to china, they are only american depending on if they are good or bad in the eyes of americans, this never happens to white or black, why? because they are considered orthodox americans while chinese can only be cultural americans, similarly huaxia orthodox ethnics were shang ethnics and also zhou ethnics that merged together, chu was outside of this

using the above we can understand the differences why wu was always only viscount rank, qin, yan were considered semi barbarian yet their rank was always marquis, the only explanation is wu was non sinitic, they were also aa btw but you seem enraged enough so we don't need to go there lol

and to clear things up because apparently i'm mixing things up, when i say someone was a chu ethnic i mean they were a genetic aa of chu state, we only use linguistics to show chu ethnics spoke aa so their genetics must also have been aa because huaxia would not adopt a lower status language for chu speakers to be genetically sinitic, when i say vietnamese i mean strictly kinh people, i don't consider minorities of vietnam vietnamese, kinh are descendants of some chu and yue ethnics that migrated to vietnam and conquered the natives who were tais, it was these people that became rulers of vietnam and formed the vietnamese identity, there's no mixing up of anything, it's the same bloodline and consciousness that existed all this time only the names are different so idk what the problem is?
So you basically have no arguments other than the fact that the scholar is Chinese and hence unreliable, without even reading them, got it. Also, YOU are the one claiming the Chu language is AA, something you have not demonstrated with any scholarship whatsoever.
when a scholar is arguing in the affirmative they can't be from that ethnic, chu language has not been studied extensively but there's enough evidence from what we do have it's most likely aa
 
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btw from the way you posted chinese sources and defended them i'm guessing you're chinese heavenlykaghan, you should relax dude , i made it very clear in the op vietnamese are not related to chinese in anyway so breath a sigh of relief thinking i'm trying to claim an association with your people and stop fighting the truth
 
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btw wrong, explanation of huaxia ethnic
there is cultural huaxia, there is ethnic huaxia, just like a chinese in america can try to assimilate and be wannabe american all they want, they will never be considered truly american, as soon as they do something wrong they will be called chinese this or that, go back to china, they are only american depending on if they are good or bad in the eyes of americans, this never happens to white or black, why? because they are considered orthodox americans while chinese can only be cultural americans, similarly huaxia orthodox ethnics were shang ethnics and also zhou ethnics that merged together, chu was outside of this
No, stop making groundless assertions. Show me a single quote in Zhou sources that described Hua in terms of language and descent.
To quote Shaoyun Yang:
"But, contrary to mainstream Chinese scholarly opinion since the 1940s, there is no record at all of "Huaxia" being used as an ethnonym rather than a toponym at any time between 770 BC and AD 581. While there is inconclusive evidence from a single ancient text, Zuoshi Chunqiu, that Hua may have been an ethnic identity in sixth-century BC Eastern Zhou, this identity apparently faded from ethnic discourse at some time thereafter and was only revived in the third century AD, due largely to the growing influence of Zuoshi Chunqiu among the elite."

There is no evidence whatsoever that commoners at the time were descended from the sage kings like the elites, and Liu Bang's biography in the Shiji showed that very clearly. Also, for your information, the term Huaxia itself only appeared ONCE in Zhou era texts in the Zuoshi Chunqiu, otherwise, it's just Hua or Xia, never both together. The notion that huaxia is an ethnic identity only appeared in the 3rd century, thanks again to the study of the Zuoshi Chunqiu. Otherwise, the notion that Hua/Xia is an ethnonym is a complete fringe concept (if it is a concept at all) of the time.

using the above we can understand the differences why wu was always only viscount rank, qin, yan were considered semi barbarian yet their rank was always marquis, the only explanation is wu was non sinitic, they were also aa btw but you seem enraged enough so we don't need to go there lol
Seriously, you think the only explanation that the Wu ruler had a lower ranking is that they were non-Sinitic? Do you not know the vast majority of the Zhou fiefs did not have rulers that were marquis?
That the Chu and Wu were different from the Central Plains states is clear enough, but that does not in any shape or form, show what linguistic family the languages they spoke fell under. English and Germans differs culturally and in language, but it does not mean they were not both Germanic languages.

and to clear things up because apparently i'm mixing things up, when i say someone was a chu ethnic i mean they were a genetic aa of chu state, we only use linguistics to show chu ethnics spoke aa so their genetics must also have been aa because huaxia would not adopt a lower status language for chu speakers to be genetically sinitic, when i say vietnamese i mean strictly kinh people, i don't consider minorities of vietnam vietnamese, kinh are descendants of some chu and yue ethnics that migrated to vietnam and conquered the natives who were tais, it was these people that became rulers of vietnam and formed the vietnamese identity, there's no mixing up of anything, it's the same bloodline and consciousness that existed all this time only the names are different so idk what the problem is?

when a scholar is arguing in the affirmative they can't be from that ethnic, chu language has not been stu
1) Genetics has no direct relationship to linguistics (not that you have any sources on this), so it's completely irrelevant to the conversation here.
2) linguistic groups do not imply ethnic solidarity
3) You have not proven Chu is an AA language at all in three pages of arguments despite being asked repeatedly to provide them.
 
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btw from the way you posted chinese sources and defended them i'm guessing you're chinese heavenlykaghan, you should relax dude ,
You seem to hold the delusion that I am defending these sources or have some personal beef in what linguistic family the Chu people spoke. That's your projection. I'm not an ethnolinguistic nationalist nor am I even Han to care enough about Sinitic languages for your information. I am just finding the fact that you have not even read the books you criticized to be utterly irresponsible in an academic discussion. You clearly have no understanding of the current scholarship in this field and yet you are attacking leading scholars because of their nationality without providing any sources of your own and also outright distorted what Norman claimed. So don't tell me to relax. Unlike you, I actually take academics seriously and will shut people down harshly if they don't. So provide the source or stop wasting our time.

i made it very clear in the op vietnamese are not related to chinese in anyway so breath a sigh of relief thinking i'm trying to claim an association with your people and stop fighting the truth
Genetics is something you are obsessed about, not me, and all humans are related in some way so it's silly to claim how two people that interacted historically are not related. As for the truth, sorry, but what is this truth of yours other than one baseless assumption made after another without a single citation from either scholarly sources or primary ones on your part? If you are just trying to make a mockery out of yourself, I congratulate you for doing a great job of that. But I need to remind you that this is a history forum, not a billboard for nationalism.
 
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No, stop making groundless assertions. Show me a single quote in Zhou sources that described Hua in terms of language and descent.
To quote Shaoyun Yang:
"But, contrary to mainstream Chinese scholarly opinion since the 1940s, there is no record at all of "Huaxia" being used as an ethnonym rather than a toponym at any time between 770 BC and AD 581. While there is inconclusive evidence from a single ancient text, Zuoshi Chunqiu, that Hua may have been an ethnic identity in sixth-century BC Eastern Zhou, this identity apparently faded from ethnic discourse at some time thereafter and was only revived in the third century AD, due largely to the growing influence of Zuoshi Chunqiu among the elite."

There is no evidence whatsoever that commoners at the time were descended from the sage kings like the elites, and Liu Bang's biography in the Shiji showed that very clearly. Also, for your information, the term Huaxia itself only appeared ONCE in Zhou era texts in the Zuoshi Chunqiu, otherwise, it's just Hua or Xia, never both together. The notion that huaxia is an ethnic identity only appeared in the 3rd century, thanks again to the study of the Zuoshi Chunqiu. Otherwise, the notion that Hua/Xia is an ethnonym is a complete fringe concept of the time.


Seriously, you think the only explanation that the Wu ruler had a lower ranking is that they were non-Sinitic? Do you not know the vast majority of the Zhou fiefs did not have rulers that were marquis?
That the Chu and Wu were different from the Central Plains states is clear enough, but that does not in any shape or form, show what linguistic family the languages they spoke fell under. English and Germans are both differ culturally and in language, but it does not mean they were not both Germanic languages.


1) Genetics has no direct relationship to linguistics (not that you have any sources on this), so it's completely irrelevant to the conversation here.
2) linguistic groups do not imply ethnic solidarity
3) You have not proven Chu is an AA language at all in three pages of arguments despite being asked.
Mencius, for instance, ridiculed his Chu opponent, Xu Xing, saying that Xu was merely “a southern barbarian who speaks a bird’s tongue.”

The Liji, or Book of rites (third century B.C.), underlined that "the Chinese, the Rong, the Yi and (the other) peoples of the five quarters all have (their own) nature, which cannot be moved or altered.


said by lu about chu
Those who are not of our race must have different hearts

According to the Zuo zhuan, in 661 Guan Zhong convinced LordHuan to assist the beleaguered state of Xing, the victim of the Di invasion, applying to the anti-barbarian solidarity: Rong and Di are wolves and jackals who cannot be satiated. All the Xia are kin who cannot be abandoned.


1) we can infer that it does but you don't seem to get the logic, a language must originate from some group, if this group has power others will learn their language but they will not learn the language of a lower group, everyone learns english, anglo people don't bother learning any second language, so you tell me if chu was considered barbarian and of low prestige how can they not be aa genetically?
2) as i said before, chu people said even if chu only has 3 clans left qin will be overthrown by chu, they clearly never cared about huaxia and were very ethnonationalistic
3) i have carpet bombed this thread with proof and you keep ignoring or denying it all, i can't do anymore

wu, yue, chu were all major states, what other major states were viscount? why don't you give us a reason for this, qin was weak at it's inception yet still granted marquis, song became weak still held marquis,

King Wuling of Zhao (r. 325–299) reportedly decided in 307 to adopt “barbarian clothing” to facilitate theuse of cavalry.

No, I am harsh on anyone who is making assertions without proof and making nationalistic accusations hypocritically without sources themselves.
so you're a sinophile? even worse, i expect blind gatekeeping from a chinese in the face of undeniable proof as i have posted but you just can't stand the pedastalised image you have of your precious china being defiled by vietnamese can you, wth lol,
and nationalistic is me claiming champa, trung sisters, mac dynasty etc belonging to vietnamese, why don't i claim any of it?
 
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Mencius, for instance, ridiculed his Chu opponent, Xu Xing, saying that Xu was merely “a southern barbarian who speaks a bird’s tongue.”
This quote does not say that all Hua languages are the same or that barbarism is tied to language. All it shows is that Mencius cannot understand the Chu language, and Chu simply happens to be barbaric, not that Hua is defined by language, much less what language family the Chu falls under (an entirely modern concept). English and German are mutually incomprehensible, as are French and Spanish, they still belong to the same language family, you are making this very repetitive.
The Liji, or Book of rites (third century B.C.), underlined that "the Chinese, the Rong, the Yi and (the other) peoples of the five quarters all have (their own) nature, which cannot be moved or altered.
Except the Gongyang Zhuan shows that the Hua and Yi identities were being altered constantly through just one immoral action.
said by lu about chu
Those who are not of our race must have different hearts
Incorrect reading of the source. The original quote is: (feiwo zulei, 非我族类,其心必异)
To quote Shaoyun Yang:

"Furthermore, the original context of feiwo zulei, qixin biyi was a Lu minister's argument that his ruler should maintain an alliance with Jin, rather than switch to allying with Chu, the rationale was that the Lu and Jin rulers were relatives, while the Chu king was from a different lineage altogether and could not be expected to care as much about Lu. Thus zulei in this context means kin, and not ethnicity or even race. But since Chu was arguably a barbarian state, third-century literati began to read and use the feiwo zulei quotation as authoritative evidence that barbarians and Zhongguo people would never get along."

BECOMING ZHONGGUO, BECOMING HAN: TRACING AND RE-CONCEPTUALIZING ETHNICITY IN. ANCIENT NORTH CHINA, 770 BC - AD 581.
According to the Zuo zhuan, in 661 Guan Zhong convinced LordHuan to assist the beleaguered state of Xing, the victim of the Di invasion, applying to the anti-barbarian solidarity: Rong and Di are wolves and jackals who cannot be satiated. All the Xia are kin who cannot be abandoned.
First, Kin is not race or ethnicity. Xia here refers only to the ruling elites who actually do (at least formally) have a common ancestry in the sage kings, one which the Chu and Wu share I might add, as the former is descended from Zhuanxu, grandson of the Yellow Emperor, and the later is descended from Taibo, the oldest son of King Tai of Zhou.
Second, you are still ignoring that the same notion of comparing Rong to animals was also applied to the Qin in the 3rd century BC, it does not mean these concepts were static or that the Qin spoke a non-Sinitic language.

1) we can infer that it does but you don't seem to get the logic, a language must originate from some group, if this group has power others will learn their language but they will not learn the language for the lower group, everyone learns english, anglo people don't bother learning any second language, understand, so you tell me if chu was barbarian and of low prestige how can they not be aa genetically?
2) as i said before, even if chu only has
3) i have carpet bombed this thread with proof and you keep ignoring or denying it all, i can't do anymore and again what's nationalist about saying qing was manchu ethnic not chinese/han?

wu, yue, chu were all major states, all were still viscounts
I'm sorry, my time is limited, and I'm an academic elitist. So I'm not going to listen to your intellectual masturbation if you are not going to cite a single professional academic source that actually argues Chu is an AA language.

King Wuling of Zhao (r. 325–299) reportedly decided in 307 to adopt “barbarian clothing” to facilitate theuse of cavalry.
No one ever said Hua was not related to culture, what I pointed out was that Hua was not based on race or ethnicity.

so you're a sinophile? even worse, wth lol
nationalist is me claiming champa, trung sisters, mac dynasty etc belonging to vietnamese, i don't claim any of it, what?
Is the concept of taking academics seriously and shutting people down for making groundless assertions regardless of the topic a foreign concept to you? I ask again, where is your source? Don't tell me to relax until you provide one.
 
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